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Which Of The Following Statements Best Describes A Service

ITIL Certification
The following section provides example reasoning for each respond. This is merely a guide even so, and does not cover every possible reason why an reply is correct or incorrect.
Service Strategy
ANSWERS
1c, 2a, 3b, 4c, 5b, 6a, 7d, 8b, 9b, 10d

Question 1
Which ITIL®® process is responsible for developing a charging organization?
a) Availability Direction
b) Capacity Direction
c) Financial Management for Information technology Services – This is an element of It accounting and chargeback
d) Service Level Management – While SLM does assist, SLM will only review the charges with customers, rather than developing the charging model itself.

Question 2
What is the RACI model used for?
a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity – this is the primary purpose of RACI, i.e. mapping processes to functions and roles.
b) Defining requirements for a new service or process – not the purpose of RACI
c) Analyzing the business bear upon of an incident – not the purpose of RACI
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Direction – not the purpose of RACI

Question three
Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the Service Lifecycle?
a) Catalogue Service Knowledge Management Arrangement and Requirements Portfolio
b) Service Catalogue and Service Pipeline – correct, the three areas are Pipeline, Catalogue and Retired Services.
c) Service Noesis Management System and Service Catalogue
d) Service Pipeline and Configuration Management System
Question four
Which of the following is Not one of the ITIL® core publications?
a) Service Operation
b) Service Transition
c) Service Derivation
d) Service Strategy

Question 5
A Service Level Packet is best described as?
a) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level Agreement – These are Service Level Requirements
b) A divers level of utility and warranty associated with a cadre service package – Correct, a combination of utility and warranty that meets the customer'due south needs.
c) A description of the value that the client wants and for which they are willing to pay
d) A document showing the Service Levels accomplished during an agreed reporting catamenia – These are Service Level Achievements

Question six
Setting policies and objectives is the chief business organization of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy – Right, see objectives of Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Performance
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Functioning and Continual Service Comeback

Question vii
A service possessor is responsible for which of the following?
a) Designing and documenting a Service – commonly the function of Service Architects
b) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Service – usually Service Desk and other operational staff
c) Producing a counterbalanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services – Service owner isn't responsible for ALL services
d) Recommending improvements – Correct, the Service Owner is responsible for continually improving their service.

Question 8
The utility of a service is best described as:
a) Fit for design
b) Fit for purpose
c) Fit for part
d) Fit for use – this is warranty (i.eastward. performance, availability etc.)

Question 9
The four P's of ITSM are people, partners, processes and …?:
a) Purpose
b) Products – Correct, see introduction to IT Service Management.
c) Perspectives
d) Practice

Question 10
The contents of a service package includes:
a) Base Service Package, Supporting Service Packet, Service Level Parcel
b) Cadre Service Bundle, Supporting Process Bundle, Service Level Bundle
c) Core Service Package, Base Service Packet, Service Support Package
d) Core Service Package, Supporting Services Package, Service Level Packages – Correct, come across Service Packages

Service Pattern
ANSWERS
1b, 2a, 3d, 4d, 5b, 6b, 7a, 8b, 9c, 10d

Question 1
Which ITIL®® procedure analyses threats and dependencies to IT Services as role of the decision regarding "countermeasures" to be implemented?
a) Availability Management – concerned with operational disruptions and the measures for recovery (i.eastward. redundant components), rather than specific recovery environments and countermeasures.
b) IT Service Continuity Direction
c) Trouble Management – will investigate the cause of a disruption, but simply contributes to recovery planning.
d) Service Asset & Configuration Management – only records and provides the information, does non analyze and evaluate anything itself.

Question ii
What is the name of the activeness inside the Capacity Management process whose purpose is to predict the future capacity requirements of new and changed services?
a) Application Sizing
b) Demand Direction – this is a split procedure, analyzing how business organisation demand will change over time.
c) Modeling – this is a carve up activity, estimating the operation of the infrastructure under certain conditions
d) Tuning

Question three
In which ITIL®® process are negotiations held with customers near the availability and capacity levels to be provided?
a) Availability Management
b) Chapters Direction
c) Financial Management for It Services
d) Service Level Direction – SLM is always the process that negotiates with customers nearly any attribute of service quality.

Question 4
Which of the following statements is false?
a) It is incommunicable to maintain user and client satisfaction during a disruption to service.
b) When reporting the availability provided for a service, the percentage (%) availability that is calculated takes into account the agreed service hours. See measuring Availability
c) Availability of services could be improved past changes to the architecture, ITSM processes or IT staffing levels. See incident lifecycle, for increasing uptime and reducing downtime.
d) Reports regarding availability should include more merely uptime, downtime and frequency of failure, and reverberate the actual business organisation impact of unavailability. Right, this is called business concern oriented availability reporting.

Question 5
Which of the following activities is Service Level Direction responsible for?
a) Informing users of available services – this is the role of the Service Desk
b) Identifying client needs
c) Overseeing service release schedule – This is the role of Release & Deployment procedure
d) Keeping accurate records of all configuration items – Service Asset & Configuration Management

Question half-dozen
Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
a) Supplier Management – reviews Underpinning Contracts
b) Service Level Direction
c) Service Portfolio Direction
d) Contract Management – not an ITIL® procedure, this is included within Supplier Management.

Question 7
What is another term for Uptime?
a) Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
b) Mean Fourth dimension to Restore Service (MTRS) – reanimation
c) Hateful Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI) – frequency of failures
d) Relationship between MTBF and MTBSI

Question viii
Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Direction?
a) Advising finish users of a organization failure – Service Desk's role during a crisis.
b) Documenting the recovery procedure for a critical system – Right, this is an activity of the ITSCM procedure
c) Reporting regarding availability – This is an action of Availability Direction
d) Guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date.

Question 9
Data security must consider the post-obit 4 perspectives:
i. Organizational
2. Physical
3. Technical
four. ?

a) Procedure
b) Security
c) Procedural – See scope of Information Security Management
d) Firewalls

Question 10
The three types of Service Level Agreements structures are:
a) Customer based, Service based, Corporate based
b) Corporate level, client level, service level
c) Service based, client based, user based
d) Customer based, service based, multi-level

Service Transition

ANSWERS
1a, 2b, 3d, 3b, 5b, 6c, 7a, 8b, 9a, 10b

Question 1
The key chemical element of a standard alter is: ?
a) Documentation of a pre-canonical process for implementing the modify
b) Low adventure to the production environment – this in itself doesn't guarantee a standard change.
c) No requirement for service downtime – the take a chance of unplanned disruption may still be high.
d) It can be included in the next monthly or quarterly release. This relates to the packaging of releases, not the nomenclature of changes.

Question 2
Release and deployment options include:
ane. Big bang vs. Phased
ii. Automated vs. Manual
3. ?
a) Push vs. Proposed
b) Push button vs. Pull
c) Requested vs. Forced
d) Proposed vs. Forced

Question 3
The 4 spheres of knowledge management are:
a) Data, facts, knowledge, wisdom
b) Ideas, facts knowledge, wisdom
c) Information, information, facts, wisdom
d) Data, information, knowledge, wisdom – easier to remember as DIKW

Question 4
Which action in Service Nugget & Configuration Direction would help to ascertain whether the recorded Configuration Items conform to the physical surroundings?
a) Command – this is the bodily modification of CIs themselves
b) Verification and inspect
c) Identification – this collects all the information to be stored for a CI
d) Status accounting – this doesn't itself doesn't include validation procedures.

Question 5
After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performed. What is this evaluation called?
a) Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)
b) Mail Implementation Review (PIR)
c) Service Improvement Program (SIP)
d) Service Level Requirement (SLR)

Question 6
Which of the following is not change type?
a) Standard alter
b) Normal change
c) Quick change
d) Emergency alter

Question seven
Which process is responsible for maintaining software items in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
a) Release and Deployment Management – every bit R&D volition be responsible for storing and deploying all software items in the DML
b) Service Asset and Configuration Management – just responsible for maintaining the records associated with the DML
c) Service validation and testing
d) Change Direction

Question 8
Which process or function is responsible for communicating the Change Schedule to the users?
a) Modify Direction – responsible for maintaining the Alter Schedule, simply provides this to the Service Desk for communicating to users.
b) Service Desk – should be the single bespeak of contact for ALL user advice
c) Release and Deployment Management
d) Service Level Management

Question nine
Which of the following best describes a baseline?
a) Used as a reference point for later comparison
b) The starting point of any projection – only i example of a baseline
c) The end betoken of any project – only 1 instance of a baseline
d) A rollback procedure

Question 10
The main objective of Alter Management is to?
a) Ensure that any changes are approved and recorded – not all changes are approved.
b) Ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for controlled treatment of all changes
c) Ensure that any change requests are managed through the CAB – this is not true for standard changes
d) Ensure that the CAB takes responsibility for all change implementation – CAB only coordinates implementation, the work is performed within the Release & Deployment process.

Service Functioning
ANSWERS
1c, 2a, 3b, 4d, 5b, 6b, 7c, 8a, 9a, 10c

Question ane
What is the all-time definition of an Incident Model?
a) Predicting the impact of incidents on the network
b) A type of Incident that is used as a best exercise model
c) A gear up of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of Incident
d) An Incident that requires a divide system

Question ii
What is the divergence between a Known Error and a Problem?
a) The underlying cause of a Known Error is known. The underlying cause of a Trouble is not known
b) A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure. A Problem does not involve such an error.
c) A Known Error ever originates from an Incident. This is not e'er the case with a Problem.
d) With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identified. This is not the case with a Known Mistake. – explanation is reversed

Question three
Information is regularly exchanged betwixt Problem Management and Change Management. What data is this?
a) Known Errors from Problem Direction, on the ground of which Modify Direction tin can generate Requests for Modify (RFCs) – Change Direction accepts the RFC, doesn't create it itself.
b) RFCs resulting from Known Errors
c) RFCs from the users that Problem Direction passes on to Change Management
d) RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management

Question iv
Incident Direction has a value to the business by?
a) Helping to control cost of fixing technology
b) Enabling customers to resolve Problems – This is trouble management
c) Helping to maximize business touch on
d) Helping to reduce the business touch on

Question 5
Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?
a) A user calls the Service Desk to guild a new mouse
b) A user calls the Service Desk-bound because they would like to modify the functionality of an application – this would exist a Normal Change, due to the potential risk and implications of the change.
c) A user calls the service desk to reset their countersign
d) A user logs onto an internal web site to download a licensed copy of software from a list of approved options – this is an case of a service request workflow that has been automated.

Question six
The BEST definition of an event is?
a) A situation where a capacity threshold has been exceeded and an agreed Service Level has already been impacted – just one type of result (exception)
b) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT Infrastructure or delivery of services
c) A problem that requires firsthand attention
d) A social gathering of Information technology staff to gloat the release of a service

Question vii
Technical Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Maintenance of the local network
b) Identifying technical skills required to manage and support the Information technology Infrastructure
c) Defining the Service agreements for the technical infrastructure – this is the function of Service Level Direction
d) Response to the disruption to the technical infrastructure

Question 8
Which of the following is Non an objective of Service Operation?
a) Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet concern needs – this is an objective of Service Transition
b) To deliver and support IT Services
c) To manage the engineering used to deliver services
d) To monitor the operation of technology and processes

Question 9
Which of the post-obit All-time describes the purpose of Result Management?
a) The power to notice events, analyze them and determine the advisable command action
b) The ability to coordinate changes in events
c) The ability to monitor and control projected service outages – this is just one role of Result Management
d) The ability to written report on success of all batch processing jobs – this is only ane role of Event Management

Question 10
Which process or function is responsible for direction of the Information centre facility?
a) IT Operations Control
b) Supplier Management
c) Facilities Management
d) Technical Part

Continual Service Comeback
ANSWERS
1b, 2b, 3b, 4c, 5a

Question 1
Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to amend services?
a) To validate, justify, monitor and improve
b) To validate, direct, justify and intervene – See Service Measurement & Reporting
c) To validate, cheque, human action and ameliorate
d) To validate, analyze, direct and improve

Question 2
Which is the beginning activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) Assess the customer's requirements
b) Understand the vision of the business organization
c) Identify what can exist measured
d) Develop a plan for improvement

Question iii
The iv stages of the Deming Wheel are?
a) Plan, Appraise, Check, Report
b) Program, Do, Check, Human activity
c) Plan, Check, Revise, Meliorate
d) Plan, Do, Act, Appraise

Question 4
Which of the following is Non a stride in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) What is the vision?
b) Did nosotros go there?
c) Who will aid u.s.a. get there?
d) Where are we now?

Question 5
Which of the post-obit provides the right set up of governance levels managed by an organization?
a) Engineering science, Service, Business concern
b) Financial, Legal, Security
c) Process, Service, Technology
d) IT, Corporate, Enterprise

Which Of The Following Statements Best Describes A Service,

Source: https://theartofservice.com/answers-for-review-questions.html

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